Thomas Palley's latest paper looks at Steve Keen's efforts
to link aggregate demand with changes in debt levels.
I think this is a good paper. Much of what Palley has to say is in line with observations I have made before about the direction Keen seems
to be going in. He identifies that Keen's
ideas on the causal relationship between money and spending are little
different from old-school monetarism. He
also discusses how this simplistic approach overlooks many of the complexities
of the relationship between debt and spending.
He includes a simple model that illustrates the way that debt can have
an impact both through its absolute level and through the rate of change.
Palley makes some observations on how different types of
debt might have different impact on spending.
This is an important issue. However,
I'm not sure I buy into the way he has reflected this in his model.
This model is based on two types of households: borrowers and
lenders; and two types of lending: bank lending and direct finance. Borrowers then spend the full amount of their
new borrowings, regardless of the source of the loans, banks or otherwise. I think this is a fairly reasonable
assumption, for a model which does not include borrowing for asset purchase.
I'm less convinced though by what he says about the spending
of lenders. His function for lenders'
consumption (his equation 18) is equivalent to:
C = α1
+ α2 . ( YD - DL ) + α3 . W
where C is consumption spending, YD is lenders disposable
income (share of GDP plus financial income), DL is direct lending in the
period and W is wealth, which includes financial assets arising from both bank lending
and direct finance.
The key point where Palley distinguishes between bank
lending and direct finance is in the inclusion of DL in this equation. What Palley is saying is that " ...[lenders']
income is reduced by lending via
direct (loanable funds) credit markets."
Here's a story I've
used before. I want to buy a car. I go to the bank and ask for a loan for $10,000. The bank decides I'm not credit-worthy and
declines. So, I go to my rich uncle and
ask if he will lend me the money. He knows
me well enough to believe that I will actually repay, so he agrees to the loan.
Now, I'm prepared
to accept that this may have some impact on my uncle's own consumption
spending. But, on the whole I don't
think it has that much. I certainly
don't think my uncle would equate this with a fall in income of $10,000. Most of the time, he's just going to see it
as another way of investing. He's
probably just going to take some money out of the bank and give me that. If he thought that lending me the money meant
he couldn't himself buy the car he meant to buy, I don't think he'd make the
loan.
On the other hand, maybe
you don't like this sort of story and prefer micro-founded argument. In which case, lenders' consumption will be
based on some kind of permanent income measure.
How they invest their savings should have no bearing on this. So the decision to make a direct loan is not going to change consumption expenditure. Personally, I have mixed feelings on this kind
of analysis, but I do think that households engage in some kind of consumption
smoothing and I find it implausible that they would vary their consumption
pattern on the basis of their investment choices.
What makes this
point even more important, I think, is that in practice the distinction for the
end investor between bank lending and other lending is a blurred one. The non-bank sector can generate and finance
itself with instruments which are very close substitutes for claims on banks. Where do you draw the line between those where
the household treats acquisition as a loss of income and those where it does
not?
What Palley has done
here (as he acknowledges) is to retain some element of loanable funds within his
model. I think it would be better
without it, but otherwise there are some good insights in this paper into the
complex way debt impacts on demand.